Haryana Judicial Services Examination – 2024 Official Question Paper (Solved) For Practice, Revision & Self-Evaluation Designed for Judicial Services Aspirants, LL.B. & LL.M. Students, APO/ADA Candidates, and Other Competitive Law Examinations
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 1–10)
1. Can a tenant who sublets rented land or a
building be considered a landlord under the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and
Eviction) Act, 1973?
A) No, a
tenant can never be treated as a landlord.
B) ✔ Yes, the tenant who sublets is
considered a landlord for the sub-tenant.
C) Only if the tenant has the express consent of the original landlord.
D) Only if the tenant has ownership rights in the property.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under the Haryana Urban (Control
of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, the term landlord includes a tenant who
has lawfully sublet the premises. As between the tenant and the sub-tenant, the
tenant occupies the position of a landlord and is entitled to exercise the
rights available under the Act.
2. According to Section 11 of the Haryana Urban
(Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, when can a person convert a
residential building into a non-residential building?
A) Only
if the building is vacant.
B) ✔ Only with the previous written
permission of the Controller.
C) Without any restrictions or permissions.
D) If the conversion is for personal use only.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 11 of the Act prohibits
the conversion of a residential building into a non-residential building except
with the previous written permission of the Controller. Any unauthorized
conversion is illegal.
3. Which of the following decisions is a decree
under Section 2(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
A) ✔ Return of plaint for presentation to the proper
Court.
B) Dismissal of suit under Order XXIII Rule 1.
C) Order rejecting an application for amendment.
D) Rejection of plaint for non-payment of court fees.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Section 2(2) CPC, the
expression "decree" expressly includes the rejection of a plaint
and the determination under Section 144 CPC, but excludes certain
orders. An order returning a plaint under Order VII Rule 10 is deemed to be a
decree for the purpose of appeal.
4. Under the legal principle of Coram Non Judice,
which statement is correct?
A) It
applies only to criminal cases.
B) It means the Court exercised jurisdiction with procedural irregularity.
C) It applies only when parties agree to the jurisdiction.
D) ✔ It denotes that the Court acted
without jurisdiction and its order is null and void.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Coram Non Judice
literally means "before a person not a judge." Any order
passed by a Court lacking jurisdiction is void ab initio and has no legal
effect.
5. A suit defeated under Order I of the CPC may be
due to:
A)
Mis-joinder of a proper party.
B) Mis-joinder of a necessary party.
C) ✔ Non-joinder of a necessary
party.
D) Mis-joinder of a proper party or parties.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Order I Rule 9 CPC provides that
no suit shall fail because of mis-joinder or non-joinder of parties except
where there is non-joinder of a necessary party.
6. How many Schedules were there in the
Constitution of India at the time of its adoption?
A) 12
B) 10
C) 9
D) ✔ 8
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: The Constitution originally
contained 8 Schedules. At present, after constitutional amendments, it
contains 12 Schedules.
7. The Right to Property was removed from the list
of Fundamental Rights by which Constitutional Amendment?
A) ✔ 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978
B) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act.
C) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
D) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: The 44th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1978 deleted Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, making the
Right to Property a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.
8. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with
Financial Emergency?
A) ✔ Article 360 (Financial Emergency)
B) State Emergency.
C) National Emergency.
D) Union's Duty to Protect States.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Article 360 provides for
the proclamation of Financial Emergency. Till date, no Financial
Emergency has been declared in India.
9. On which day did the President of the
Constituent Assembly declare "Jana Gana Mana" as the National Anthem
of India?
A) 14
August 1947
B) 15 August 1947
C) 26 November 1949
D) ✔ 24 January 1950
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: On 24 January 1950, Dr.
Rajendra Prasad, President of the Constituent Assembly, officially declared "Jana
Gana Mana" as the National Anthem of India.
10. Who was the Prime Minister of Britain at the
time of Indian Independence in 1947?
A)
Winston Churchill
B) Benjamin Disraeli
C) ✔ Clement Attlee
D) John Simon
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Clement Attlee, the Prime
Minister of the United Kingdom (1945–1951), oversaw the passage of the Indian
Independence Act, 1947, and the transfer of power to India on 15 August 1947.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 11–20)
11. The following question consists of two statements, namely Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Leading questions are generally allowed during examination-in-chief.
Reason (R): Cross-examination aims to test the veracity of the witness's testimony and to discover inconsistencies.
A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
C) ✔ Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
D) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Sections 141–143 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, leading questions are generally not permitted in examination-in-chief, except with the permission of the Court or on introductory matters. However, they are ordinarily allowed during cross-examination because its object is to test the credibility and truthfulness of the witness.
12. What does Section 93 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 primarily deal with in relation to documents?
A) Admission of extrinsic evidence to explain every type of ambiguity.
B) ✔ Exclusion of evidence to explain or amend patent ambiguities in documents.
C) Admission of evidence to interpret all ambiguities.
D) Exclusion of evidence for every defect in a document.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 93 embodies the rule that extrinsic evidence cannot be given to explain or remove a patent ambiguity (an ambiguity apparent on the face of the document).
13. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Court shall presume the authenticity of an electronic record when it is:
A) 7 years old.
B) 5 years old.
C) ✔ 5 years old.
D) 30 years old.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Section 90A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Court may presume the authenticity of an electronic record that is five years old, provided it is produced from proper custody.
14. To determine the relationship between two individuals in a judicial proceeding, whose opinion is relevant under the Indian Evidence Act?
A) Opinion of an expert witness only.
B) Opinion of any person present during the incident.
C) Opinion of the Judge presiding over the case.
D) ✔ Opinion of persons having special means of knowledge on the subject.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Under Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act, the opinion of a person having special means of knowledge regarding the existence of a relationship is relevant.
15. During the trial, Mr. X is summoned merely to produce a document. Can he be cross-examined?
A) ✔ No. He cannot be cross-examined unless he is called as a witness.
B) He can be cross-examined immediately after producing the document.
C) He can be cross-examined only if the document is disputed.
D) He may be cross-examined at any time during the trial.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Section 139 of the Indian Evidence Act, a person summoned only to produce a document does not become a witness and therefore cannot be cross-examined unless he is formally examined as a witness.
16. "When an agreement is discovered to be void, any person who has received an advantage under such agreement is bound to restore it." This statement is:
A) ✔ True.
B) False.
C) Partly true.
D) Partly false.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: This is the rule contained in Section 65 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, which requires restitution of any advantage received under an agreement later discovered to be void.
17. What type of contract is created when one party promises something in exchange for the other party's performance?
A) Bilateral Contract.
B) ✔ Unilateral Contract.
C) Executed Contract.
D) Void Contract.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: In a unilateral contract, one party makes a promise that becomes binding only when the other party performs the required act (e.g., reward cases such as Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.).
18. Which of the following propositions is correct regarding a contingent contract?
A) The contract is not contingent if the event depends upon the will of a party.
B) The contingency must be of a certain nature.
C) ✔ The contingency contemplated by the contract must be collateral to the contract.
D) All of the above.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Sections 31–36 of the Indian Contract Act, a contingent contract depends upon the happening or non-happening of a collateral event, not an event forming part of the consideration itself.
19. What is the effect of Section 17(1A), inserted in the Registration Act, 1908 by the Registration and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2001?
A) Registration of every agreement to sell is compulsory.
B) Registration is compulsory only if possession is delivered.
C) ✔ Registration is compulsory if protection under Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is claimed.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 17(1A) provides that documents containing contracts to transfer immovable property for consideration must be registered if the transferee seeks the benefit of Section 53A of the Transfer of Property Act (Doctrine of Part Performance).
20. In a sale by description, if the goods do not correspond with the description, although they serve the buyer's purpose, the buyer:
A) ✔ Can reject the goods.
B) Cannot reject the goods.
C) Can claim damages only.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Section 15 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, where there is a sale by description, the goods must correspond with the description. If they do not, the buyer has the right to reject them, even if they are otherwise fit for the intended purpose.
Next: Questions 21–30 will continue in the same compact format with corrected text, ✔ correct answers, and concise legal explanations..
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 21–30)
21. The mother of an illegitimate child has the power to give that child in adoption:
A) Only with the consent of the putative father.
B) ✔ Without the consent of the putative father.
C) With the prior permission of the Court.
D) Without the consent of the putative father but with the prior permission of the Juvenile Justice Board.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under Section 9 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, the mother of an illegitimate child has the independent right to give the child in adoption. The consent of the putative father is not required.
22. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 is primarily based on which school of Muslim Law?
A) Hanafi School.
B) Shafi School.
C) ✔ Maliki School.
D) Zaidi School.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: The Act substantially incorporates the Maliki School principles, enabling Muslim women to obtain dissolution of marriage on several grounds that were not available under the strict Hanafi law.
23. In which of the following cases is a partnership firm compulsorily dissolved?
A) By the happening of an event making the business unlawful.
B) By the death of a partner.
C) By the adjudication of a partner as an insolvent.
D) ✔ By the happening of an event making the business unlawful.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Under Section 41 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a firm is compulsorily dissolved when its business becomes unlawful. Death or insolvency of a partner does not necessarily dissolve the firm if there is an agreement to the contrary.
24. The provisions of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 apply to land leased for:
A) Residential purpose.
B) Business or trade purpose.
C) ✔ Both residential and business/trade purposes.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: The Act governs urban premises let for residential as well as non-residential (commercial/business) purposes unless specifically exempted.
25. As per Section 24 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918, who presides over the Principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction?
A) Civil Judge (Senior Division).
B) District Magistrate.
C) ✔ District Judge.
D) District Collector.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under the Punjab Courts Act, 1918 (applicable to Haryana), the District Judge is the presiding officer of the Principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction.
26. "When one has, by his declaration, act or omission, intentionally caused another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon such belief, he cannot afterwards deny its truth." This principle is known as:
A) Acquiescence.
B) Res Gestae.
C) ✔ Estoppel.
D) Conclusive Proof.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: This is the doctrine of Estoppel contained in Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. A person who induces another to act on a belief cannot later deny that representation.
27. Further examination of a witness after cross-examination by the party calling him is known as:
A) Main Examination.
B) Additional Examination.
C) ✔ Re-examination.
D) Re-cross Examination.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Section 138 of the Indian Evidence Act, the examination following cross-examination is called re-examination, and its object is to clarify matters arising during cross-examination.
28. The right of private defence of property is not available against which offence?
A) Criminal Trespass.
B) Mischief.
C) Theft.
D) ✔ Criminal Misappropriation.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Sections 97–106 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 recognize the right of private defence against offences such as theft, robbery, mischief and criminal trespass. It is not available against criminal misappropriation, as there is no immediate threat to possession.
29. A child born during the continuance of a valid marriage or within 280 days after its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried, is:
A) Conclusive proof of marriage.
B) ✔ Conclusive proof of the legitimacy of the child.
C) Proof of both maternity and paternity.
D) Proof of guardianship.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, birth during the continuance of a valid marriage is conclusive proof of legitimacy, unless non-access between the spouses is established.
30. Facts which need not be proved include:
A) Facts of which the Court takes judicial notice.
B) Facts admitted by the parties before or during the proceedings.
C) ✔ Both A and B.
D) Neither A nor B.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Sections 56, 57 and 58 of the Indian Evidence Act, judicially noticeable facts and admitted facts need not be proved by evidence.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 31–40)
31. A certified copy of a registered sale deed issued by the office of the Registrar under the Registration Act, 1908 is:
A) Primary evidence.
B) ✔ Secondary evidence.
C) Both primary and secondary evidence.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under Sections 61, 63 and 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a certified copy of a registered document is secondary evidence and is admissible in the cases provided by law. The original registered sale deed remains the primary evidence.
32. False statements, rumours or reports circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offences against public tranquillity are punishable under:
A) ✔ Section 505 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
B) Section 300 IPC.
C) Section 299 IPC.
D) Section 351 IPC.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Section 505 IPC punishes making, publishing or circulating statements, rumours or reports intended to cause fear, alarm, mutiny or offences against public tranquillity.
33. To constitute the offence of criminal conspiracy under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code, the minimum number of persons required is:
A) One.
B) Five.
C) ✔ Two.
D) No minimum requirement.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Criminal conspiracy necessarily requires an agreement between two or more persons. A single person cannot commit the offence of conspiracy.
34. Who among the following can plead ignorance of Indian law?
A) Indian citizens only.
B) Foreigners residing in India.
C) Both Indian citizens and foreigners.
D) ✔ None of the above.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: The maxim "Ignorantia juris non excusat" (ignorance of law is no excuse) applies equally to Indian citizens and foreigners. No person can avoid liability by pleading ignorance of Indian law.
35. During a fight, 'Q' suddenly attacked 'T' with a concealed knife causing a permanent scar on his face. Which offence has 'Q' committed?
A) Simple hurt.
B) Simple hurt by rash or negligent act.
C) Grievous hurt by rash or negligent act.
D) ✔ Grievous hurt.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: A permanent disfiguration of the head or face amounts to grievous hurt under Section 320 IPC. Since the injury was intentionally inflicted, the offence is voluntarily causing grievous hurt.
36. The Sarda Act is popularly known as:
A) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act.
B) Age of Consent Act.
C) Widow Remarriage Act.
D) ✔ Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 is popularly known as the Sarda Act, named after its sponsor Harbilas Sarda.
37. Constitution Day is celebrated in India on:
A) 15 August.
B) 26 January.
C) 4 July.
D) ✔ 26 November.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Constitution Day (Samvidhan Diwas) is observed on 26 November to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution by the Constituent Assembly in 1949.
38. In which year did NITI Aayog replace the Planning Commission?
A) 2013.
B) 2014.
C) 2011.
D) ✔ 2015.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: NITI Aayog was constituted on 1 January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission.
39. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands fall under the jurisdiction of which High Court?
A) Kerala High Court.
B) Madras High Court.
C) Orissa High Court.
D) ✔ Calcutta High Court.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: The Calcutta High Court exercises jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
40. Which was the earliest legal institution established by the East India Company in India under the Charter of 1726?
A) Circuit Courts.
B) Supreme Court of Calcutta.
C) ✔ Mayor's Court.
D) Federal Court.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: The Charter of 1726 established the Mayor's Courts at Madras, Bombay and Calcutta, which were the earliest regular courts of record established by the East India Company in India.
Next: Questions 41–50 (Evidence Act, Hindu Law, IPC and Constitutional Law) will continue in the same compact format with corrected questions, ✔ answers and exam-oriented explanations.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 41–50)
41. Under Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the presumption of death arises when a person has not been heard of for a period of:
A) 3 years.
B) ✔ 7 years.
C) 12 years.
D) 30 years.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, if a person has not been heard of for seven years by those who would naturally have heard of him, the Court may presume that the person is dead. However, the exact date and time of death are not presumed and must be proved separately.
42. The evidentiary value of the opinion of a handwriting expert is:
A) Conclusive proof.
B) ✔ Relevant expert opinion, subject to the acceptance of the Court.
C) Irrelevant evidence.
D) Binding on the Court.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act, the opinion of a handwriting expert is relevant but not conclusive. The Court generally seeks corroboration before relying upon such evidence.
43. If a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until:
A) Both attesting witnesses have been examined.
B) ✔ At least one attesting witness has been called to prove its execution, if available.
C) No attesting witness is examined.
D) Registration alone is sufficient.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act requires that where a document is legally required to be attested (such as a Will), at least one attesting witness must be examined to prove its execution, if such witness is alive and capable of giving evidence.
44. A co-defendant in a civil suit may be cross-examined by another co-defendant:
A) Never.
B) In every case.
C) ✔ When their interests are adverse to each other.
D) Only with the permission of the Registrar.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Cross-examination between co-defendants is permissible only where there is a conflict of interest between them. If their interests are common, such cross-examination is generally not allowed.
45. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the burden of proving ownership lies upon:
A) The owner.
B) The tenant.
C) ✔ The person who asserts ownership.
D) The Court.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: According to the general rule contained in Sections 101–103 of the Indian Evidence Act, the burden of proof lies upon the person who asserts a fact. Therefore, the person claiming ownership must prove it.
46. 'A' was married in 1947 according to Hindu rites. Can he file a petition for judicial separation under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
A) No, because the marriage took place before 1955.
B) No, because the marriage has continued for more than 25 years.
C) ✔ Yes. The Act applies irrespective of whether the marriage was solemnized before or after its commencement.
D) No, such a petition is not maintainable.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 applies even to marriages solemnized before its commencement. Therefore, a spouse married before 1955 can seek relief under the Act.
47. When a marriage has been dissolved by a decree of divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and no appeal has been filed, the parties may remarry:
A) After one month.
B) Immediately after the decree.
C) After two months.
D) ✔ After the period of appeal has expired (presently 90 days under the Limitation Act, unless otherwise provided).
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Under Section 15 of the Hindu Marriage Act, remarriage is permitted after the period for filing an appeal has expired, or where an appeal has been dismissed. For examination purposes, 90 days is generally treated as the correct answer.
48. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the Sapinda relationship extends to:
A) ✔ Third generation (inclusive) through the mother and fifth generation (inclusive) through the father.
B) Third generation (exclusive) through the mother and fifth generation (inclusive) through the father.
C) Five generations through both parents.
D) All blood relations.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Section 3(f) of the Hindu Marriage Act defines Sapinda relationship as extending up to the third generation (inclusive) through the mother and the fifth generation (inclusive) through the father, counting the person concerned as the first generation.
49. What is the legal position of a nominee under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?
A) The nominee becomes the absolute owner.
B) ✔ The nominee merely receives the property as a trustee for the legal heirs.
C) The nominee is equivalent to a legatee under a Will.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: A nominee is only a receiver or trustee of the amount or property. The beneficial ownership vests in the legal heirs unless the governing statute expressly provides otherwise. This principle has been affirmed in several Supreme Court decisions, including Sarbati Devi v. Usha Devi (1984).
50. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, when a Hindu female dies intestate, her property devolves firstly upon:
A) Father.
B) Mother.
C) Brother.
D) ✔ Sons, daughters and the husband.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Under Section 15(1)(a) of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, the property of a Hindu female dying intestate devolves first upon her sons, daughters (including children of any predeceased son or daughter) and her husband. Only in their absence does the property pass to the heirs specified in the subsequent clauses.
Next: Questions 51–60 will cover IPC, Cr.P.C., Constitutional Law, Current Affairs and the Limitation Act in the same compact, examination-oriented format with ✔ correct answers and concise explanations.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 51–60)
51. The landmark judgment in State of Andhra Pradesh v. Rayavarapu Punnayya, AIR 1977 SC 45, explains the distinction between:
A) ✔ Sections 299 and 300 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
B) Sections 304A and 304B IPC.
C) Sections 305 and 306 IPC.
D) Sections 501 and 502 IPC.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: In State of A.P. v. Rayavarapu Punnayya (AIR 1977 SC 45), the Supreme Court explained the subtle distinction between culpable homicide (Section 299) and murder (Section 300). It remains one of the leading authorities on this subject.
52. Riya prepared exact replicas of high-value currency notes using advanced printing technology and attempted to use them. She is liable for:
A) Forgery.
B) Cheating.
C) ✔ Counterfeiting currency notes.
D) Criminal conspiracy.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Counterfeiting Indian currency is specifically punishable under Sections 489A to 489E IPC. Since Riya prepared counterfeit currency notes, the offence is counterfeiting, not merely forgery.
53. Legal aid to an accused at the expense of the State is provided under:
A) ✔ Section 304 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
B) Section 306 Cr.P.C.
C) Section 310 Cr.P.C.
D) Section 312 Cr.P.C.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Section 304 Cr.P.C. provides for legal aid at State expense to an accused facing trial before the Court of Session if he has insufficient means to engage a pleader.
54. Which provision of the Indian Penal Code was declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in Joseph Shine v. Union of India, (2019) 3 SCC 39?
A) ✔ Section 497 IPC (Adultery).
B) Section 377 IPC.
C) Section 124A IPC.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: In Joseph Shine v. Union of India (2018), the Supreme Court unanimously struck down Section 497 IPC, holding that criminalizing adultery violated Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Constitution.
55. What are the two essential elements of every crime?
A) De jure and De facto.
B) Fraud and Mistake.
C) ✔ Mens rea and Actus reus.
D) All of the above.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Every crime generally consists of Mens Rea (guilty mind) and Actus Reus (guilty act) unless the statute creates an offence of strict or absolute liability.
56. In which House of Parliament does the Attorney General for India have the right to speak and participate in proceedings?
A) Rajya Sabha only.
B) Lok Sabha only.
C) ✔ Both Houses of Parliament.
D) Neither House.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Article 88 of the Constitution, the Attorney General has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, though he has no right to vote.
57. Who was the first Indian to become a permanent Judge of the International Court of Justice (ICJ), The Hague?
A) ✔ Nagendra Singh.
B) Justice Dalveer Bhandari.
C) Benegal Narsing Rau.
D) Justice P.N. Bhagwati.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Justice Nagendra Singh became the first Indian permanent Judge and later President of the International Court of Justice.
58. Where a plaintiff discovers fraud only later, the period of limitation begins from:
A) The original cause of action.
B) ✔ The date on which the fraud becomes known to the plaintiff.
C) The date of filing the suit.
D) The date fixed by the Court.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 17 of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides that where the suit is based upon fraud, limitation begins from the date of discovery of the fraud.
59. In a suit for specific performance of a contract, the period of limitation begins:
A) On the date fixed for performance.
B) If no date is fixed, when the plaintiff has notice of refusal.
C) ✔ Both A and B.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Article 54 of the Limitation Act, 1963, limitation starts from the date fixed for performance, or if no such date is fixed, from the date when refusal is first communicated.
60. Section 14 of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with:
A) Extension of prescribed period.
B) ✔ Exclusion of time spent prosecuting proceedings bona fide before a Court without jurisdiction.
C) Both A and B.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 14 excludes the time spent in pursuing a civil proceeding with due diligence and in good faith before a Court which ultimately lacked jurisdiction or was otherwise unable to entertain the matter.
Note: From Question 61 onwards, I will also mention important Supreme Court judgments and relevant statutory provisions wherever applicable, making this suitable as a Judicial Services solved question bank.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 61–70)
61. According to Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, the term "Judgment" means:
A) Only the decree passed by an appellate court.
B) Only decisions relating to declaratory relief.
C) ✔ The statement given by the Judge on the grounds of a decree or order.
D) Only the operative portion of the Court's decision.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 2(9) CPC defines Judgment as the statement given by the Judge on the grounds of a decree or order. It contains the reasons upon which the decree or order is based.
62. Regarding the doctrine of Forum Non Conveniens, which statement is correct?
A) The plaintiff may always choose any forum.
B) ✔ A Court may refuse to exercise jurisdiction if another forum is more appropriate for the interests of justice and convenience of the parties.
C) It applies only to civil disputes.
D) It is an absolute bar to jurisdiction.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: The doctrine of Forum Non Conveniens enables a Court having jurisdiction to decline exercising it where another competent forum is substantially more appropriate for adjudication.
63. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with the power of restitution?
A) Section 148 CPC.
B) ✔ Section 144 CPC.
C) Section 96 CPC.
D) Section 146 CPC.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 144 CPC embodies the doctrine of restitution, requiring the Court to restore the parties to the position which they would have occupied had the erroneous decree or order not been passed.
Important Case: Binayak Swain v. Ramesh Chandra Panigrahi, AIR 1966 SC 948.
64. In execution proceedings, which of the following statements regarding the proclamation of sale is incorrect?
A) ✔ It may be drawn up without giving notice to the decree-holder and the judgment-debtor.
B) It shall state the time and place of sale.
C) It shall specify any encumbrance affecting the property.
D) It shall state whether the property to be sold is sufficient to satisfy the decree.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Order XXI Rule 66 CPC, notice to the judgment-debtor before settling the proclamation of sale is mandatory. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
65. 'A' is charged with travelling in a train without a ticket. The burden of proving that he possessed a valid ticket lies upon:
A) The prosecution.
B) ✔ The accused who asserts that he had a valid ticket.
C) The Railway Administration.
D) The Court.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act, facts especially within the knowledge of a person must be proved by that person. Whether the accused possessed a ticket is a fact within his special knowledge.
66. What is the new name of the Parliament Building of India?
A) Puratan Sadan.
B) ✔ Samvidhan Sadan.
C) Sansad Bhavan.
D) Central Vista.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: After the inauguration of the new Parliament building, the old Parliament House was officially named Samvidhan Sadan.
67. Which of the following cases is not related to LGBTQ+ rights or same-sex marriage?
A) ✔ Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker (2016).
B) K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017).
C) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018).
D) Shafin Jahan v. Asokan K.M. (2018).
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Nabam Rebia concerns the powers of the Governor and legislative procedure in Arunachal Pradesh. The remaining cases concern privacy, sexual orientation, or the right to choose a life partner.
68. What is the name of the indigenously built in-service missile corvette gifted by India to Vietnam?
A) INS Khanjar.
B) ✔ INS Kirpan.
C) INS Kora.
D) INS Kirch.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: India gifted INS Kirpan, a Khukri-class missile corvette, to Vietnam in 2023 as part of strengthening bilateral defence cooperation.
69. The Supreme Court of India was established under which constitutional/legal instrument?
A) Regulating Act, 1773.
B) Charter Act, 1833.
C) Regulating Act, 1758.
D) ✔ The Constitution of India, 1950 (Articles 124–147).
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: The OCR text incorrectly lists historical Acts. The Supreme Court of India was established on 26 January 1950 under Articles 124–147 of the Constitution of India, replacing the Federal Court of India. (If this question appeared exactly as in the original paper, it is likely an OCR error. The intended answer in the paper may have referred to the Federal Court, which was established under the Government of India Act, 1935.)
70. From which Constitution have the provisions relating to the suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency been borrowed?
A) Ireland.
B) ✔ Germany (Weimar Constitution).
C) Russia.
D) South Africa.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: The emergency provisions, particularly relating to the suspension of Fundamental Rights, were substantially influenced by the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
Next: Questions 71–80 will continue in the same compact format with corrected OCR errors, ✔ answers, statutory provisions, and important Supreme Court case references wherever relevant.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 71–80)
71. Who among the following is/are not competent to enter into a contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
A) Minor.
B) Person of unsound mind.
C) Person disqualified by law.
D) ✔ All of the above.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Under Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority, of sound mind and is not disqualified by law. Hence, all the persons mentioned in options A, B and C are incompetent to contract.
Important Case: Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903) – A minor's agreement is void ab initio.
72. When consent to an agreement is obtained by undue influence, the agreement is:
A) Void.
B) ✔ Voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
C) Voidable at the option of the person exercising undue influence.
D) Valid in every case.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Under Sections 16 and 19A of the Indian Contract Act, a contract induced by undue influence is voidable at the option of the aggrieved party.
73. Where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is:
A) ✔ Void.
B) Valid.
C) Voidable.
D) Illegal.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, a bilateral mistake of fact regarding an essential matter renders the agreement void.
74. 'X' sends an insured parcel to 'Y'. The parcel is lost in transit. 'Y':
A) ✔ Cannot claim the insurance amount because there is no privity of contract between 'Y' and the insurer.
B) Can enforce the contract because a constructive trust is created in his favour.
C) Can enforce only if there is an express provision in the insurance contract permitting him to do so.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: The doctrine of privity of contract provides that only the parties to a contract can enforce it. Since the insurance contract exists between the sender and the insurer, the consignee generally cannot sue unless covered by a statutory or contractual exception.
75. A, while a minor, borrowed money from B. After attaining majority, A voluntarily repaid the loan. Later, A filed a suit to recover the amount repaid. What is the legal position?
A) A will recover the money.
B) A will recover because the contract was void.
C) ✔ A cannot recover the amount voluntarily repaid.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Although a minor's agreement is void, money voluntarily repaid after attaining majority cannot ordinarily be recovered merely because the original contract was void.
Important Case: Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose (1903).
76. In a bribery case, a tape-recorded conversation between the accused and a police decoy was objected to as being a statement made to the police. The correct legal position is:
A) The recording is inadmissible because it is a statement to the police.
B) ✔ The recorded conversation is admissible as relevant evidence.
C) Tape-recorded evidence is never admissible.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Tape-recorded conversations are admissible if their authenticity, relevance and accuracy are established.
Important Cases:
- R.M. Malkani v. State of Maharashtra (1973) 1 SCC 471.
- Yusufalli Esmail Nagree v. State of Maharashtra AIR 1968 SC 147.
77. 'A' is accused of murdering a child. The evidence shows that:
- One hour before the murder, 'A' was seen with the child.
- 'A' returned alone.
- Blood stains were found on 'A's shirt.
This evidence is:
A) Direct evidence.
B) ✔ Circumstantial evidence.
C) Real evidence.
D) Secondary evidence.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Since no witness directly saw the murder, the prosecution relies on a chain of circumstances. Such evidence is known as circumstantial evidence.
Important Case: Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra (1984) – The "Five Golden Principles" of circumstantial evidence.
78. Under Section 114 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the Court may presume:
A) A person found in possession of stolen property soon after theft is either the thief or received it knowing it to be stolen.
B) Judicial and official acts have been regularly performed.
C) Evidence withheld by a party would, if produced, be unfavourable to that party.
D) ✔ All of the above.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Section 114 permits the Court to draw various permissive presumptions based on ordinary human conduct and natural events. All the above illustrations are specifically recognized.
79. 'Consent' under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 means:
A) ✔ Agreeing upon the same thing in the same sense (Consensus ad idem).
B) Agreeing to different things in the same sense.
C) Agreeing to different things in different senses.
D) All of the above.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Section 13 of the Indian Contract Act, consent means that two or more persons agree upon the same thing in the same sense, known as Consensus ad Idem.
80. A prospectus issued by a company inviting the public to subscribe for its shares is:
A) An offer.
B) ✔ An invitation to offer (Invitation to Treat).
C) A cross-offer.
D) A counter-offer.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: A company prospectus is not an offer but merely an invitation to the public to make offers by applying for shares. The offer is made by the applicant, and the company accepts it by allotting shares.
Important Case: Nash v. Lynde (1929).
Exam Tip (Questions 71–80):
These questions are based on frequently tested provisions of the Indian Contract Act and Evidence Act. For Judicial Services examinations, remember:
- Section 11 – Competency to Contract.
- Section 13 – Consent.
- Section 16 – Undue Influence.
- Section 20 – Mistake.
- Section 114 Evidence Act – Presumptions.
- Sharad Birdhichand Sarda Case – Circumstantial Evidence.
- Mohori Bibee Case – Minor's Agreement.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 81–90)
81. Illegal payment in connection with elections is punishable under:
A) Section 169H IPC.
B) Section 170H IPC.
C) ✔ Section 171H IPC.
D) Section 172H IPC.Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 171H of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 punishes illegal payments made in connection with an election without the written authority of a candidate or his election agent.
82. What should be the age of a minor to constitute the offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship?
A) 16 years for both male and female.
B) 18 years for both male and female.
C) ✔ Below 16 years in the case of a male and below 18 years in the case of a female.
D) Below 18 years for a male and below 21 years for a female.Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Section 361 IPC (now substantially covered under Section 137 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023), kidnapping from lawful guardianship applies to:
- Male: Below 16 years.
- Female: Below 18 years.
- A person of unsound mind, irrespective of age.
83. In a criminal trial, the burden of proof generally lies on:
A) The accused.
B) ✔ The prosecution.
C) The defence counsel.
D) The Court.Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: The cardinal principle of criminal jurisprudence is that the prosecution must prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt.
Important Cases:
- Woolmington v. DPP (1935 AC 462)
- Kali Ram v. State of Himachal Pradesh, (1973) 2 SCC 808.
84. The power of a Magistrate to order a person to give specimen signatures or handwriting is provided under:
A) Section 310A Cr.P.C.
B) ✔ Section 311A Cr.P.C.
C) Section 312A Cr.P.C.
D) Section 313A Cr.P.C.Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 311A Cr.P.C. empowers a Magistrate to direct any person, including an accused, to give specimen signatures or handwriting during an investigation or proceeding.
85. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment up to:
A) ✔ Seven years and fine.
B) Three years and fine.
C) Ten years and fine.
D) Life imprisonment.Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Section 29(1) Cr.P.C., a Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass any sentence authorized by law except death, life imprisonment or imprisonment exceeding seven years.
86. Under Order XXXII Rule 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the provisions relating to minors also apply to:
A) Persons adjudged to be of unsound mind.
B) Persons found by the Court to be incapable of protecting their interests due to mental infirmity.
C) ✔ Both A and B.
D) None of the above.Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Order XXXII Rule 15 CPC extends the provisions applicable to minors to:
- Persons adjudged to be of unsound mind, and
- Persons who, though not so adjudged, are incapable of protecting their interests because of mental infirmity.
87. Which of the following does not fall within the expression "barred by law" under Order VII Rule 11(d) CPC?
A) Res Judicata.
B) Lack of Jurisdiction.
C) Limitation.
D) ✔ Lack of Jurisdiction.Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: A plaint may be rejected under Order VII Rule 11(d) if the suit appears from the plaint to be barred by law, e.g., limitation or res judicata. Mere lack of territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction generally results in return of the plaint under Order VII Rule 10, not rejection under Rule 11(d).
Important Case: Popat and Kotecha Property v. State Bank of India Staff Association, (2005) 7 SCC 510.
88. A defendant against whom no relief is claimed is known as:
A) Co-defendant.
B) ✔ Pro forma defendant.
C) Intervener.
D) Proper party.Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: A pro forma defendant is joined only because his presence is necessary for complete adjudication, though no substantive relief is sought against him.
89. Which of the following Supreme Court judgments emphasized that procedural laws are handmaids of justice and should not defeat substantial justice?
A) A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras.
B) State of U.P. v. Vijay Anand Maharaj.
C) ✔ Salem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India, AIR 2005 SC 3353.*
D) Anil Rai v. State of Bihar.Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: In Salem Advocate Bar Association v. Union of India, the Supreme Court emphasized that the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure should be interpreted to advance justice rather than obstruct it.
90. Order I Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with:
A) Substitution of parties.
B) Addition of parties.
C) Striking out parties.
D) ✔ Addition or striking out of parties.Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Order I Rule 10 CPC empowers the Court at any stage of the proceedings to:
- Add a necessary or proper party,
-
Strike out an unnecessary party,
so that all issues in controversy can be effectively adjudicated.
Important Cases:
- Razia Begum v. Sahebzadi Anwar Begum, AIR 1958 SC 886.
- Mumbai International Airport Pvt. Ltd. v. Regency Convention Centre, (2010) 7 SCC 417.
Judicial Examination Note (Questions 81–90)
The following provisions are very important for Judicial Services examinations:
- Section 171H IPC – Illegal election payments.
- Section 361 IPC – Kidnapping from lawful guardianship.
- Section 311A Cr.P.C. – Specimen handwriting/signatures.
- Section 29 Cr.P.C. – Powers of Chief Judicial Magistrate.
- Order VII Rule 11 CPC – Rejection of plaint.
- Order I Rule 10 CPC – Addition and deletion of parties.
- Order XXXII Rule 15 CPC – Persons of unsound mind.
These provisions are frequently tested in Haryana Civil Judge, Punjab Civil Judge, Rajasthan Judicial Service, Delhi Judicial Service, and APO examinations.
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 91–100)
91. Who among the following females does not
have the capacity to adopt a child individually under the Hindu Adoptions and
Maintenance Act, 1956?
A) ✔ A married female.
B) An unmarried female.
C) A widow.
D) A divorcee.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Section 8 of the Hindu
Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, a married Hindu woman cannot adopt a
child in her own right during the lifetime of her husband unless he has
completely and finally renounced the world, ceased to be a Hindu, or has been
declared of unsound mind by a competent court.
92. What is the effect of a decree for Judicial
Separation under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
A) It
dissolves the marriage.
B) The marriage continues to subsist.
C) It merely suspends the obligation of cohabitation.
D) ✔ Both B and C.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Under Section 10 of the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955, judicial separation does not dissolve the marriage.
It merely relieves the spouses from the obligation to cohabit while the marital
relationship continues.
93. Under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act,
1955, the Court may:
A) Modify
an order of permanent alimony.
B) Vary such order.
C) Rescind such order.
D) ✔ All of the above.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Section 25(2) empowers
the Court to modify, vary or rescind an order relating to permanent
alimony and maintenance if there is a change in the circumstances of either
party.
94. An adoption validly made under the Hindu
Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 may be cancelled by:
A) The
adoptive father or mother.
B) The natural parents.
C) Both A and B.
D) ✔ Neither A nor B.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Under Section 15 of the Hindu
Adoptions and Maintenance Act, a valid adoption cannot be cancelled
either by the adoptive parents or by the natural parents.
95. Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act,
1956, the expression "full blood", "half blood" and
"uterine blood" is relevant for determining:
A)
Adoption.
B) ✔ Relationship for succession and
guardianship purposes.
C) Legitimacy.
D) Marriage.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: These expressions are defined
under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and are relevant in determining the
order of succession among heirs. (The OCR in the uploaded paper is
distorted; this is the legally correct form of the question.)
96. Under Section 87 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, a Court may issue a warrant:
A) In
lieu of summons.
B) In addition to summons.
C) ✔ Both A and B.
D) Neither A nor B.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 87 Cr.P.C.
authorizes the Court to issue a warrant either instead of or in addition to
a summons if the statutory conditions are satisfied.
97. Under Section 107 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, an Executive Magistrate may require a person to execute a bond for
keeping the peace when:
A) A
breach of peace has already occurred.
B) The person has a criminal record.
C) ✔ The Magistrate receives
information that the person is likely to commit a breach of peace and there is
sufficient ground for proceeding.
D) The local police request such action.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 107 Cr.P.C. is a preventive
provision. It enables the Executive Magistrate to require execution of a
bond where there is an apprehension of breach of peace.
98. Under Section 164A(1) of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, the medical examination of a woman alleged to have been raped should
ordinarily be conducted within:
A) 24
hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) ✔ 24 hours from the time the
information is received by the police.
D) 72 hours.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 164A Cr.P.C.
requires that the medical examination of the rape victim be conducted without
delay, preferably within 24 hours of receiving the information.
99. Under Section 172(2) of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, police diaries may be used by the Criminal Court:
A) As
substantive evidence.
B) As evidence against the accused.
C) ✔ Not as evidence, but to aid the
Court during inquiry or trial.
D) To replace witness statements.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Police diaries are not
substantive evidence. The Court may use them only to assist itself during
inquiry or trial, subject to the restrictions contained in Section 172
Cr.P.C.
100. Who among the following cannot order the
dispersal of an unlawful assembly by use of civil force?
A)
Executive Magistrate.
B) Officer-in-Charge of a Police Station.
C) ✔ Judicial Magistrate First Class.
D) Police Officer not below the rank authorized by law.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Sections 129–131
Cr.P.C., the power to disperse an unlawful assembly by use of civil force
is vested primarily in the Executive Magistrate and certain police
officers. A Judicial Magistrate has no such executive power.
Judicial Services Quick Revision (Questions 91–100)
|
Provision |
Topic |
|
Section
8, HAMA |
Capacity
of female to adopt |
|
Section
10, HMA |
Judicial
Separation |
|
Section
25, HMA |
Permanent
Alimony |
|
Section
15, HAMA |
Valid
adoption cannot be cancelled |
|
Section
87 Cr.P.C. |
Warrant
in lieu of/addition to summons |
|
Section
107 Cr.P.C. |
Security
for keeping peace |
|
Section
164A Cr.P.C. |
Medical
examination in rape cases |
|
Section
172 Cr.P.C. |
Police
diary |
|
Sections
129–131 Cr.P.C. |
Dispersal
of unlawful assembly |
Note: I have corrected several OCR
mistakes in the uploaded paper (especially Questions 95 and 98) to match the
correct statutory language while preserving the intended examination content.
next
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 101–110)
101. The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 extends to:
A) The
whole of India.
B) The whole of India except the State of Jammu & Kashmir.
C) ✔ The whole of India except the
State of Nagaland and the tribal areas specified in the Sixth Schedule.
D) Both B and C.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: After the Jammu & Kashmir
Reorganisation Act, 2019, the CPC extends to the whole of India. However, Section
1(3) CPC excludes its automatic application to Nagaland and certain
tribal areas unless specifically extended.
102. The expression "Cause of Action"
means:
A) ✔ A bundle of essential facts which the plaintiff
must prove to obtain a decree.
B) An important issue in the suit.
C) A point of law.
D) All of the above.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: A cause of action is the
bundle of material facts giving rise to a legal right to sue.
Important
Cases:
- Read v. Brown (1888)
- A.B.C. Laminart Pvt. Ltd. v.
A.P. Agencies,
(1989) 2 SCC 163.
103. A contract was entered into at Hyderabad, to
be performed at Pune, breached at Nagpur, while the plaintiff resides at Delhi
and the defendant at Pune. In which Court cannot the plaintiff institute the
suit?
A)
Hyderabad District Court.
B) Nagpur District Court.
C) ✔ Delhi District Court.
D) Pune District Court.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Section 20 CPC, a
suit may be filed where:
- the defendant resides,
- the cause of action wholly
or partly arises.
Since no
part of the cause of action arose in Delhi, and the defendant does not
reside there, Delhi Courts have no territorial jurisdiction.
104. In a suit for breach of contract, the
plaintiff's suit was dismissed in default under Order IX CPC. His application
for restoration was also dismissed. What remedy is available?
A) Appeal
only.
B) Fresh application for restoration.
C) ✔ Appeal against the order
rejecting the restoration application.
D) Fresh suit.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: An order refusing restoration
under Order IX Rule 9 CPC is appealable under Order XLIII Rule 1(c)
CPC.
105. Which of the following statements regarding
the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 is incorrect?
A) The
Code lays down the procedure for Civil Courts.
B) It deals mainly with procedural law.
C) ✔ The Code is a penal statute
prescribing offences and punishments.
D) None of the above.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: The CPC is a procedural law
governing civil litigation. It is not a penal statute.
106. In which case did the Supreme Court direct
that the identity of victims of sexual offences should not be disclosed in
Court judgments?
A) ✔ State of Punjab v. Ramdev Singh, (2004) 1 SCC 421.
B) Shashi Kant v. State of Uttaranchal.
C) Dinesh v. State of Rajasthan.
D) Lalita Kumari v. Government of U.P.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: The Supreme Court has
consistently held that the identity of victims of sexual offences must remain
confidential.
Relevant
Provision: Section
228A IPC (now corresponding provision under BNS).
107. Who frames the charge under the Code of
Criminal Procedure?
A) ✔ The Court.
B) Public Prosecutor.
C) Police Officer.
D) Either A or B.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: Under Sections 228 and 240
Cr.P.C., the Court alone frames the charge after considering the
police report and hearing the parties.
108. Germany defeated Belgium to win the FIH Men's
Hockey World Cup 2023. Where was the final played?
A) ✔ Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
B) Lahore.
C) Paris.
D) Dhaka.
Answer: ✔ A
Explanation: The FIH Men's Hockey World
Cup 2023 was jointly hosted by Bhubaneswar and Rourkela, with the
final held at Bhubaneswar.
109. Where was the 28th United Nations Climate
Change Conference (COP-28) held?
A)
London.
B) ✔ Dubai, United Arab Emirates.
C) New Delhi.
D) Tokyo.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: COP-28 was held in Dubai,
UAE, from 30 November to 13 December 2023.
110. Which country instituted proceedings before
the International Court of Justice alleging genocide during the Gaza conflict?
A)
Palestine.
B) United States.
C) Japan.
D) ✔ South Africa.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: In December 2023, South
Africa filed a case before the International Court of Justice (ICJ)
alleging violations of the Genocide Convention in relation to Gaza.
Judicial Services Quick Notes (Questions 101–110)
|
Provision |
Topic |
|
Section
20 CPC |
Territorial
Jurisdiction |
|
Order
IX Rule 9 CPC |
Restoration
of Suit |
|
Order
XLIII Rule 1(c) |
Appeal
against refusal to restore suit |
|
Sections
228 & 240 Cr.P.C. |
Framing
of Charge |
|
Section
228A IPC |
Identity
of Rape Victim |
|
Section
1 CPC |
Extent
of CPC |
Important
Cases
- ✔ A.B.C. Laminart Pvt. Ltd. v. A.P. Agencies
– Cause of Action.
- ✔ State of Punjab v. Ramdev Singh –
Identity of rape victim.
- ✔ Read v. Brown – Meaning of Cause of
Action.
Next: Questions 111–125 (Final
Part) will complete the entire solved paper with corrected questions, ✔ answers, relevant statutory provisions, important case law, and concise
explanations.
next
Code B – Solved Paper (Questions 111–125)
111. Which of the following is the correct sequence
of the stages in a civil suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
A) Filing
of Written Statement → Institution of Suit → Framing of Issues → Judgment.
B) ✔ Institution of Suit → Written
Statement → Framing of Issues → Evidence → Judgment → Decree.
C) Institution of Suit → Judgment → Evidence → Decree.
D) Institution of Suit → Evidence → Written Statement → Judgment.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: The normal stages of a civil
suit are: Institution of Suit → Issue of Summons → Written Statement →
Framing of Issues → Evidence → Arguments → Judgment → Decree.
112. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, amendment of pleadings after commencement of trial is permissible
only when:
A) The
opposite party consents.
B) The Court considers it necessary.
C) ✔ The party could not have raised
the matter despite due diligence before commencement of trial.
D) It relates to a question of law.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: The Proviso to Order VI Rule
17 CPC restricts amendments after commencement of trial unless the Court is
satisfied that despite due diligence, the matter could not have been
raised earlier.
Important
Case: Revajeetu
Builders & Developers v. Narayanaswamy & Sons, (2009) 10 SCC 84.
113. A decree passed by a Court having no inherent
jurisdiction is:
A)
Irregular.
B) Voidable.
C) ✔ Null and void (a nullity).
D) Valid unless challenged in appeal.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: A decree passed without inherent
jurisdiction is a nullity and can be challenged even in execution
proceedings.
Important
Case: Kiran
Singh v. Chaman Paswan, AIR 1954 SC 340.
114. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure
embodies the doctrine of Res Judicata?
A)
Section 10.
B) ✔ Section 11.
C) Section 9.
D) Section 151.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Section 11 CPC bars the
trial of a suit or issue which has already been finally decided between the
same parties by a competent Court.
Important
Case: Satyadhyan
Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi, AIR 1960 SC 941.
115. Under the Constitution of India, the writ of
Habeas Corpus is issued for:
A)
Enforcement of contractual rights.
B) ✔ Securing the release of a person
unlawfully detained.
C) Appointment to a public office.
D) Transfer of a civil suit.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: The writ of Habeas Corpus
is the most effective constitutional remedy against illegal detention
and is available under Articles 32 and 226.
116. Which Article of the Constitution guarantees
equality before law?
A)
Article 19.
B) Article 20.
C) ✔ Article 14.
D) Article 21.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Article 14 guarantees Equality
before Law and Equal Protection of the Laws, forming the foundation
of the rule of law in India.
117. The principle of Audi Alteram Partem means:
A) No one
shall be a judge in his own cause.
B) ✔ Hear the other side before
deciding.
C) Ignorance of law is no excuse.
D) Facts speak for themselves.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Audi Alteram Partem is a
fundamental principle of Natural Justice, ensuring that every person gets
a fair opportunity to be heard before an adverse decision is taken.
118. Under the Limitation Act, 1963, an appeal
filed after expiry of the prescribed period may be admitted if:
A) The
appellant pays additional court fees.
B) The respondent gives consent.
C) ✔ Sufficient cause for delay is
shown.
D) The Court considers the appeal important.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Section 5 of the
Limitation Act, 1963, delay in filing an appeal or application may be
condoned if the appellant establishes sufficient cause.
Important
Case: Collector,
Land Acquisition v. Mst. Katiji, (1987) 2 SCC 107.
119. The maxim Actus Non Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit
Rea means:
A) Every
act is punishable.
B) Ignorance of law excuses no one.
C) ✔ An act does not make a person
guilty unless accompanied by a guilty mind.
D) Every wrong has a remedy.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: This is the fundamental
principle of criminal jurisprudence, emphasizing that Mens Rea is
generally an essential ingredient of a crime.
120. The doctrine of Lis Pendens is contained in:
A)
Section 51, Transfer of Property Act.
B) Section 52, Indian Contract Act.
C) ✔ Section 52, Transfer of Property
Act, 1882.
D) Section 53, Registration Act.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 52 of the Transfer of
Property Act provides that during the pendency of litigation, the property
in dispute cannot be transferred so as to affect the rights of the other party.
121. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the
High Courts to issue writs?
A)
Article 32.
B) ✔ Article 226.
C) Article 227.
D) Article 136.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: Article 226 empowers
every High Court to issue writs not only for enforcement of Fundamental Rights
but also for any other legal right, making its jurisdiction wider than
Article 32.
122. Which of the following is not an essential
element of a valid contract?
A) Free
Consent.
B) Lawful Consideration.
C) Competency of Parties.
D) ✔ Registration in every case.
Answer: ✔ D
Explanation: Registration is required only
for certain classes of contracts and documents. It is not an essential
requirement for every valid contract under the Indian Contract Act.
123. The maxim Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium means:
A) No one
should be condemned unheard.
B) ✔ Where there is a legal right,
there is a legal remedy.
C) Equity follows the law.
D) Ignorance of law is no excuse.
Answer: ✔ B
Explanation: This famous maxim is the
foundation of civil justice and means that whenever a legal right is infringed,
the law provides an appropriate remedy.
124. Under Section 9 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, Civil Courts have jurisdiction to try:
A) Only
suits relating to immovable property.
B) Only money suits.
C) ✔ All suits of a civil nature
except those expressly or impliedly barred.
D) Only declaratory suits.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Section 9 CPC confers
wide jurisdiction upon Civil Courts to try all suits of a civil nature,
unless jurisdiction is expressly or impliedly excluded.
125. The burden of proving a fact especially within
the knowledge of a person lies upon:
A) The
plaintiff.
B) The prosecution.
C) ✔ The person having such special
knowledge.
D) The Court.
Answer: ✔ C
Explanation: Under Section 106 of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872, when a fact is especially within the knowledge
of a person, the burden of proving that fact lies upon that person.
✅ Code B Solved Paper
Completed (Questions 1–125)
This
completes the entire solved paper in a Judicial Services format with:
- ✔ Corrected OCR errors.
- ✔ Continuous numbering (1–125).
- ✔ Correct answers clearly marked.
- ✔ Relevant statutory provisions.
- ✔ Important Supreme Court judgments wherever
applicable.
- ✔ Short, examination-oriented explanations.
For
publication as a Judicial Services Solved Papers Book, I recommend one
more editorial review against the original question paper because a few
questions (particularly in the Current Affairs and OCR-distorted portions) may
need verification to ensure the printed answers exactly match the official
answer key. This will make the final book suitable for competitive exam
aspirants
DISCLAIMER
This solved question paper has been prepared solely for educational,
academic, and examination guidance purposes. Every effort has been
made to ensure the accuracy of the questions, answers, statutory provisions,
case laws, and explanations. However, despite careful proofreading and
editorial review, inadvertent typographical, OCR (Optical Character
Recognition), formatting, or factual errors may remain.
The original question paper used in this publication has been digitized from
a scanned copy. Wherever the scanned text was unclear, distorted, or illegible,
the questions have been reconstructed and corrected on the basis of the
relevant statutory provisions, judicial precedents, standard legal texts, and
the apparent intent of the examination. Readers are advised to verify doubtful
questions with the official question paper and the official answer key,
wherever available.
The answers and explanations contained in this publication represent the
editor's interpretation of the applicable law and judicial precedents as
existing on the date of publication. Since laws, statutory provisions, and
judicial pronouncements are subject to amendment, modification, overruling, or
reinterpretation by competent courts and legislatures, readers should always
refer to the latest Bare Acts, amendments, official notifications, and
authoritative judgments before relying upon any legal proposition.
This publication is intended only as a study aid for candidates preparing
for Judicial Services Examinations, APO, Assistant District Attorney,
Law Officer, UGC-NET (Law), CLAT-PG, and other competitive legal examinations.
It should not be construed as legal advice, professional
opinion, or an authoritative statement of law.
The publisher, editor, author, and contributors shall not be responsible or
liable for any loss, damage, consequence, or inconvenience arising from the use
of this publication or from any error or omission contained herein.
All trademarks, names of statutes, reported judgments, and governmental
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papers nor intends to infringe any copyright. The solved answers, explanations,
editorial notes, and analytical content are original educational material
prepared independently for academic purposes.
Readers are welcome to communicate any error, suggestion, or correction for
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© FactWarrior Academy of Excellence
Prepared for Judicial Services Examination Aspirants
For Educational Purposes Only
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