Wednesday, 1 July 2026

HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES (CIVIL JUDGE)/ Factwarrior/CPC-1908/Chapter–3 Jurisdiction of Civil Courts Section 9 – Courts to Try All Civil Suits

 


HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES (CIVIL JUDGE)

CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, 1908

Chapter–3

Jurisdiction of Civil Courts

Section 9 – Courts to Try All Civil Suits

MCQ Bank (Questions 51–60)

Q.51. Section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure embodies which one of the following principles?

(A) Every civil dispute must first be referred to arbitration.

(B) Civil Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except those of which cognizance is expressly or impliedly barred. ✅

(C) Civil Courts can try only property disputes.

(D) Civil Courts have jurisdiction only where specifically conferred by statute.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Section 9 CPC is founded upon the principle that Civil Courts possess inherent jurisdiction over all suits of a civil nature unless their jurisdiction has been expressly or impliedly excluded by law. The provision reflects the legislative policy that access to Civil Courts is the rule and exclusion is the exception.

The expression "civil nature" has received a liberal interpretation by the Supreme Court and includes disputes relating to property, office, status, contractual rights, easements, trusts, and several other civil rights.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Arbitration depends upon an agreement between the parties and is not the rule under Section 9.

(C) Civil Courts adjudicate a wide variety of civil rights and are not confined to property disputes.

(D) Civil Courts possess general jurisdiction. It is the exclusion of jurisdiction—not its conferment—that ordinarily requires statutory authority.

Relevant Provision: Section 9, CPC.

Leading Case: Dhulabhai v. State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 1969 SC 78.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

Always remember the golden rule:

Civil Court Jurisdiction is the Rule. Exclusion is the Exception.


Q.52. The expression "suits of a civil nature" under Section 9 CPC should ordinarily be interpreted—

(A) Narrowly.

(B) Strictly.

(C) Liberally. ✅

(D) Literally without reference to judicial precedents.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The Legislature intentionally employed the words "civil nature" instead of merely "civil rights." Courts have consistently held that this expression should receive a broad and liberal interpretation so that genuine civil disputes are not denied judicial remedies.

Even where religious ceremonies or customs are involved, if civil rights such as property, office, management, or emoluments are in issue, the suit remains one of a civil nature.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) A narrow interpretation defeats the object of Section 9.

(B) Strict interpretation is contrary to settled judicial principles.

(D) Judicial precedents play a vital role in determining the scope of civil jurisdiction.

Relevant Provision: Section 9 CPC.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

Whenever the examination asks about the meaning of "civil nature," choose the option favouring liberal interpretation unless expressly excluded by statute.


Q.53. Which one of the following statements correctly reflects the law relating to the exclusion of Civil Court jurisdiction?

(A) Exclusion of jurisdiction is readily presumed.

(B) Exclusion must either be express or necessarily implied. ✅

(C) Every special statute automatically excludes Civil Court jurisdiction.

(D) Civil Courts lose jurisdiction whenever a tribunal is constituted.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Civil Court jurisdiction is not excluded merely because a special forum exists. The statute must either expressly bar the jurisdiction of Civil Courts or the exclusion must arise by necessary implication.

Where two interpretations are possible, the one preserving Civil Court jurisdiction is generally preferred.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Courts never presume exclusion of jurisdiction.

(C) Creation of a statutory tribunal does not automatically exclude Civil Courts.

(D) The establishment of a tribunal is insufficient unless the statute expressly or impliedly bars Civil Court jurisdiction.

Relevant Provision: Section 9 CPC.

Leading Case: Dhulabhai v. State of Madhya Pradesh.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

One of the most frequently repeated principles in Judicial Service examinations is:

A bar to Civil Court jurisdiction cannot be readily inferred.


Q.54. Which of the following is an example of an express bar of Civil Court jurisdiction?

(A) A statute specifically provides that no Civil Court shall entertain any suit relating to matters covered by the Act. ✅

(B) A tribunal is created without any exclusion clause.

(C) The Government issues an executive circular.

(D) The parties mutually agree not to approach Civil Courts.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

An express bar exists where the statute itself contains clear language excluding the jurisdiction of Civil Courts, such as the phrase "No Civil Court shall have jurisdiction…"

Examples are found in several taxation, land reform, and election statutes.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Mere creation of a tribunal does not amount to an express bar.

(C) Executive instructions cannot curtail statutory jurisdiction.

(D) Parties cannot by agreement oust the jurisdiction conferred by law upon Civil Courts.

Relevant Provision: Section 9 CPC.


Q.55. An implied bar to the jurisdiction of Civil Courts may arise where—

(A) The statute creates a complete machinery for adjudication and indicates an intention to exclude Civil Court jurisdiction. ✅

(B) A Government notification so directs.

(C) The plaintiff prefers an alternative forum.

(D) The defendant objects to the maintainability of the suit.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

An implied bar is inferred from the scheme of the statute. Where a special Act creates rights, liabilities, remedies, appellate forums, and finality clauses, the intention to exclude Civil Court jurisdiction may be gathered by necessary implication.

However, such implication must be clear and unavoidable.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Notifications cannot impliedly exclude statutory jurisdiction.

(C) Choice of forum by the plaintiff cannot determine jurisdiction.

(D) Objection by the defendant does not itself create a bar.

Relevant Provision: Section 9 CPC.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

Remember:

Express Bar = Direct statutory words.

Implied Bar = Inferred from the statutory scheme.

HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES (CIVIL JUDGE)

CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, 1908

Chapter–5

Res Judicata

Section 11 – Res Judicata

MCQ Bank (Questions 71–80)

Q.71. The doctrine of Res Judicata under Section 11 CPC is based primarily upon which of the following principles?

(A) Every litigation should be decided repeatedly.

(B) No person should be vexed twice for the same cause and there should be finality to judicial decisions. ✅

(C) Every decree is automatically void after appeal.

(D) Every suit must be decided by the Supreme Court.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The doctrine of Res Judicata is founded upon the principles of public policy, justice, and finality of litigation. Once a competent Court has finally decided a matter directly and substantially in issue, the same parties cannot reopen the same dispute in a subsequent suit. The object is to prevent multiplicity of proceedings and conflicting judicial decisions.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) The law discourages repeated litigation.

(C) A decree remains valid unless set aside by a competent Court.

(D) Civil suits are not required to be decided by the Supreme Court.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.


Q.72. Which Latin maxim best expresses the doctrine embodied in Section 11 CPC?

(A) Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea.

(B) Nemo dat quod non habet.

(C) Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium. ✅

(D) Volenti non fit injuria.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The maxim "Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium" means it is in the interest of the State that there should be an end to litigation. Section 11 CPC gives statutory recognition to this principle.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Relates to criminal liability.

(B) Relates to transfer of property.

(D) Relates to consent in tort law.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

This Latin maxim is repeatedly asked in Judicial Service Preliminary Examinations.


Q.73. Which of the following is an essential condition for the application of Res Judicata?

(A) The former suit must have been decided by a Court lacking jurisdiction.

(B) The matter directly and substantially in issue must have been directly and substantially in issue in the former suit. ✅

(C) The former suit must still be pending.

(D) The subsequent suit must always be filed within one year.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

One of the most important ingredients of Section 11 CPC is that the matter directly and substantially in issue in the subsequent suit must have been directly and substantially in issue in the former suit and finally decided.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) The former Court must be competent.

(C) A pending suit attracts Section 10, not Section 11.

(D) Limitation has no connection with Res Judicata.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.


Q.74. For the application of Section 11 CPC, the former suit must have been—

(A) Withdrawn.

(B) Finally decided. ✅

(C) Stayed.

(D) Adjourned indefinitely.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Res Judicata applies only after a final adjudication by a competent Court. Mere pendency, withdrawal or adjournment of the earlier suit does not satisfy this requirement.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Withdrawal without adjudication creates no Res Judicata.

(C) Stay does not amount to final decision.

(D) Adjournment is not disposal of the suit.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.


Q.75. The former suit for the purpose of Section 11 CPC means—

(A) The suit instituted first.

(B) The suit decided first, irrespective of the date of institution. ✅

(C) The suit filed before the High Court.

(D) The suit filed by the Government.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Explanation I to Section 11 clarifies that the expression "former suit" refers to the suit decided earlier, irrespective of the date on which it was instituted.

Thus, a suit instituted later but decided earlier may constitute the former suit.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Institution is not the determining factor.

(C) High Court is not necessary.

(D) Government suits are not treated differently.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation I.


Q.76. Under Section 11 CPC, the parties in both suits must—

(A) Always be natural persons.

(B) Be the same or litigate under the same title. ✅

(C) Be Government authorities.

(D) Have identical advocates.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Identity of parties is an indispensable requirement. The parties may either be the same or claim under the same title, such as legal representatives, successors or assignees.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Juristic persons are equally covered.

(C) Government need not be a party.

(D) Identity of advocates is irrelevant.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.


Q.77. A matter is said to be "directly and substantially in issue" when—

(A) It forms the principal issue requiring adjudication. ✅

(B) It arises incidentally during arguments.

(C) It is mentioned only in pleadings.

(D) It is referred to by the witnesses.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The doctrine applies only to matters forming the very foundation of the controversy. Incidental or collateral findings do not operate as Res Judicata.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Incidental matters do not attract Section 11.

(C) Mere pleading is insufficient.

(D) Evidence alone is not decisive.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.


Q.78. Which one of the following correctly distinguishes Section 10 from Section 11 CPC?

(A) Section 10 applies after final decision.

(B) Section 11 applies during pendency of the former suit.

(C) Section 10 stays trial of a pending suit, whereas Section 11 bars re-litigation after final adjudication. ✅

(D) Both provisions are identical.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Section 10 deals with pending litigation (Res Sub Judice) and prevents simultaneous trial.

Section 11 deals with completed litigation (Res Judicata) and prevents reopening of matters already finally decided.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Incorrect.

(B) Incorrect.

(D) The two doctrines are entirely different.

Relevant Provisions: Sections 10 & 11, CPC.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

A favourite preliminary question is the distinction between Res Sub Judice and Res Judicata.


Q.79. Which one of the following best describes the object of Section 11 CPC?

(A) To increase the number of civil suits.

(B) To ensure finality in litigation and prevent conflicting decisions. ✅

(C) To enlarge appellate jurisdiction.

(D) To regulate execution proceedings.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The doctrine promotes judicial discipline, certainty, and economy by preventing repeated litigation over the same issue between the same parties.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Opposite to the legislative intent.

(C) Appeals are governed separately.

(D) Execution proceedings are dealt with in Part II of the CPC.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.


Q.80. Consider the following statements regarding Res Judicata:

  1. The former suit must have been finally decided.
  2. The Court deciding the former suit must have been competent.
  3. The matter directly and substantially in issue must be identical.
  4. The parties must be the same or litigating under the same title.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✅

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

All four statements correctly state the essential ingredients of Section 11 CPC.

For Res Judicata to operate:

  • There must be a former suit.
  • It must have been finally decided.
  • The former Court must have been competent.
  • The parties must be the same or claim under the same title.
  • The matter directly and substantially in issue must be identical in both suits.

Failure of any essential ingredient renders Section 11 inapplicable.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A), (B), and (C) omit one or more mandatory conditions prescribed under Section 11 CPC.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.

Leading Cases:

  • Satyadhyan Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi, AIR 1960 SC 941.
  • Sheoparsan Singh v. Ramanandan Prasad Narayan Singh, (1916) 43 IA 91 (PC).
  • Daryao v. State of U.P., AIR 1961 SC 1457.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

Always remember the five essential ingredients of Res Judicata:

  1. Former suit.
  2. Competent Court.
  3. Final decision.
  4. Same parties or parties claiming under the same title.
  5. Same matter directly and substantially in issue.

These principles form the foundation of Section 11 CPC and are among the most frequently examined topics in Haryana Judicial Services Preliminary Examination.

HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES (CIVIL JUDGE)

CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, 1908

Chapter–5

Res Judicata

Section 11 – Res Judicata (Explanations I to VIII)

MCQ Bank (Questions 81–90)

Q.81. The doctrine of Constructive Res Judicata is embodied in—

(A) Explanation II to Section 11

(B) Explanation III to Section 11

(C) Explanation IV to Section 11 ✅

(D) Explanation VIII to Section 11

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Explanation IV to Section 11 incorporates the doctrine of Constructive Res Judicata. It provides that any matter which might and ought to have been made a ground of attack or defence in the former suit shall be deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue in that suit.

The law discourages splitting of claims and piecemeal litigation.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Explanation II deals with competence of Court.

(B) Explanation III deals with matters actually alleged and denied.

(D) Explanation VIII relates to decisions of Courts of limited jurisdiction.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation IV, CPC.


Q.82. Constructive Res Judicata is based upon the principle that—

(A) Every issue must be decided by the Supreme Court.

(B) Matters which might and ought to have been raised earlier cannot be raised subsequently. ✅

(C) Every interlocutory order becomes final.

(D) Appeals are barred after one decree.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Constructive Res Judicata prevents a party from raising in a subsequent proceeding a plea which could and should have been taken in the former litigation. It aims at preventing abuse of the judicial process by ensuring that all available grounds are taken in one proceeding.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Supreme Court adjudication is not required.

(C) Interlocutory orders are governed by separate principles.

(D) Appeals remain governed by statutory provisions.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation IV.

Leading Case: Forward Construction Co. v. Prabhat Mandal, (1986) 1 SCC 100.


Q.83. Under Explanation III to Section 11 CPC, a matter is deemed to have been directly and substantially in issue if—

(A) It was alleged by one party and either admitted or denied by the other party. ✅

(B) It was merely mentioned in evidence.

(C) It was discussed during arguments.

(D) It appeared in the judgment incidentally.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Explanation III clarifies that a matter must have been specifically alleged by one party and admitted or denied by the other to be regarded as directly and substantially in issue.

This ensures that only properly contested issues attract Res Judicata.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Evidence alone is insufficient.

(C) Arguments without pleadings are immaterial.

(D) Incidental observations do not constitute issues.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation III.


Q.84. Which Explanation to Section 11 CPC provides that the competence of a Court shall be determined irrespective of any right of appeal?

(A) Explanation I

(B) Explanation II ✅

(C) Explanation VI

(D) Explanation VIII

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Explanation II provides that for the purposes of Section 11, the competence of a Court shall be determined irrespective of any provisions regarding the right of appeal from its decision.

Thus, even if an appeal lies, the Court may still be competent for the purposes of Res Judicata.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Explanation I defines "former suit."

(C) Explanation VI concerns representative suits.

(D) Explanation VIII concerns Courts of limited jurisdiction.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation II.


Q.85. Explanation VI to Section 11 CPC primarily deals with—

(A) Representative suits. ✅

(B) Foreign judgments.

(C) Arbitration proceedings.

(D) Execution proceedings.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Explanation VI provides that where persons litigate bona fide in respect of a public right or a private right claimed in common for themselves and others, all persons interested shall be deemed to claim under those litigating.

Thus, a decision in a representative suit binds all persons represented.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Foreign judgments are governed by Sections 13 and 14 CPC.

(C) Arbitration is governed separately.

(D) Execution proceedings are outside Explanation VI.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation VI.


Q.86. Explanation VIII to Section 11 CPC provides that—

(A) Only High Court judgments operate as Res Judicata.

(B) Decisions of Courts of limited jurisdiction may also operate as Res Judicata. ✅

(C) Only Civil Judges can apply Res Judicata.

(D) Revenue Courts can never create Res Judicata.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Explanation VIII was inserted to clarify that even where a Court has limited jurisdiction, its decision on an issue within its competence may operate as Res Judicata in a subsequent civil proceeding.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Incorrect.

(C) Incorrect.

(D) Incorrect.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation VIII.


Q.87. Which one of the following is the principal object of the doctrine of Constructive Res Judicata?

(A) To encourage repeated litigation.

(B) To compel parties to raise all available grounds in one proceeding. ✅

(C) To abolish appellate jurisdiction.

(D) To enlarge the jurisdiction of Civil Courts.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The doctrine prevents fragmentation of litigation. A litigant cannot reserve certain pleas for future litigation when they ought to have been taken in the earlier proceeding.

The law expects complete adjudication in one proceeding wherever possible.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Opposite to the doctrine.

(C) Appeals remain unaffected.

(D) Jurisdiction is governed by statute.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation IV.


Q.88. Res Judicata applies to—

(A) Questions finally decided by a competent Court. ✅

(B) Every observation made during arguments.

(C) Every issue framed but never decided.

(D) Every allegation in the plaint irrespective of adjudication.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Only issues finally adjudicated by a competent Court become Res Judicata. Mere pleadings, observations, or undecided issues do not attract the doctrine.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Arguments are not findings.

(C) Undecided issues cannot become Res Judicata.

(D) Pleadings alone are insufficient.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, CPC.


Q.89. Which of the following best distinguishes Actual Res Judicata from Constructive Res Judicata?

(A) Actual Res Judicata applies to criminal proceedings only.

(B) Actual Res Judicata relates to issues actually decided, whereas Constructive Res Judicata relates to issues which might and ought to have been raised. ✅

(C) Both doctrines are identical.

(D) Constructive Res Judicata applies only to appeals.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Actual Res Judicata bars re-litigation of issues actually decided in the former suit.

Constructive Res Judicata bars issues which, although not actually decided, should have been raised in the former suit.

The distinction is frequently examined in Judicial Service examinations.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Incorrect.

(C) They operate differently.

(D) Constructive Res Judicata applies to suits, writs and other proceedings as recognised by judicial decisions.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanation IV.


Q.90. Consider the following statements regarding the Explanations to Section 11 CPC:

  1. Explanation I defines the expression "former suit."
  2. Explanation IV embodies the doctrine of Constructive Res Judicata.
  3. Explanation VI applies to representative litigation.
  4. Explanation VIII recognises Res Judicata arising from decisions of Courts of limited jurisdiction.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✅

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

All four statements correctly describe the respective Explanations to Section 11 CPC.

  • Explanation I defines the expression "former suit."
  • Explanation IV incorporates Constructive Res Judicata.
  • Explanation VI extends the doctrine to representative suits.
  • Explanation VIII provides that even decisions of Courts of limited jurisdiction may operate as Res Judicata if the issue was within their competence.

These Explanations significantly expand the scope and practical application of the doctrine beyond its main provision.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A), (B), and (C) omit one or more correct statements.

Relevant Provision: Section 11, Explanations I to VIII, CPC.

Leading Cases:

  • Satyadhyan Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi, AIR 1960 SC 941.
  • Forward Construction Co. v. Prabhat Mandal, (1986) 1 SCC 100.
  • Hope Plantations Ltd. v. Taluk Land Board, (1999) 5 SCC 590.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

For Haryana Judicial Services, always remember the four most frequently tested Explanations to Section 11 CPC:

  • Explanation I – Former Suit
  • Explanation IV – Constructive Res Judicata
  • Explanation VI – Representative Suit
  • Explanation VIII – Court of Limited Jurisdiction

These Explanations are repeatedly tested in Preliminary Examinations because they require conceptual understanding rather than mere memorization.

HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES (CIVIL JUDGE)

CODE OF CIVIL PROCEDURE, 1908

Chapter–6

Foreign Judgments

Sections 13 & 14 CPC

MCQ Bank (Questions 91–100)

Q.91. Section 13 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 primarily deals with—

(A) Execution of decrees.

(B) Res Judicata.

(C) When a foreign judgment shall be conclusive. ✅

(D) Appeals from original decrees.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Section 13 CPC lays down the circumstances under which a foreign judgment shall be regarded as conclusive between the parties. As a general rule, a foreign judgment is conclusive except in the six situations specifically enumerated under clauses (a) to (f) of Section 13.

The object of the provision is to promote certainty in international litigation while protecting parties from judgments obtained contrary to law or justice.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Execution of decrees is dealt with separately.

(B) Res Judicata is governed by Section 11 CPC.

(D) Appeals are governed by Part VII of the CPC.

Relevant Provision: Section 13, CPC.


Q.92. Which one of the following is NOT an exception to the conclusiveness of a foreign judgment under Section 13 CPC?

(A) The judgment has not been pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction.

(B) The judgment has not been given on the merits of the case.

(C) The judgment is founded on a correct appreciation of evidence. ✅

(D) The judgment has been obtained by fraud.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

A foreign judgment based upon proper appreciation of evidence strengthens its conclusiveness rather than destroys it.

Section 13 specifies only six exceptions, namely:

  • Lack of jurisdiction.
  • Not on merits.
  • Incorrect view of international law or refusal to recognise Indian law.
  • Proceedings opposed to natural justice.
  • Obtained by fraud.
  • Sustains a claim founded on breach of Indian law.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A), (B), and (D) are statutory exceptions under Section 13.

Relevant Provision: Section 13, CPC.


Q.93. A foreign judgment shall not be conclusive if it has not been given on the merits of the case. The expression "on the merits" means—

(A) The Court actually considered the rival claims and evidence before deciding the dispute. ✅

(B) The plaintiff filed the suit first.

(C) The defendant remained absent in every case.

(D) The judgment contains lengthy reasoning.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

A judgment is said to be on the merits when the Court applies its judicial mind to the evidence and issues involved and determines the rights of the parties.

A decree passed merely because of default or technical non-appearance may not amount to a decision on the merits.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Priority of institution is irrelevant.

(C) Mere absence of the defendant does not necessarily determine whether the judgment is on merits.

(D) Length of the judgment is not decisive.

Relevant Provision: Section 13(b), CPC.


Q.94. Under Section 13 CPC, a foreign judgment shall not be conclusive if it appears on the face of the proceedings to be founded on—

(A) An incorrect view of International Law or a refusal to recognise Indian law where applicable. ✅

(B) A detailed appreciation of evidence.

(C) Judicial precedents of the foreign country.

(D) A compromise between the parties.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Clause (c) of Section 13 protects Indian legal principles by refusing conclusiveness to judgments based upon an incorrect understanding of International Law or refusal to apply Indian law where it was applicable.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B), (C), and (D) are not statutory exceptions.

Relevant Provision: Section 13(c), CPC.


Q.95. Which one of the following principles of natural justice is most closely associated with Section 13(d) CPC?

(A) Nemo judex in causa sua and Audi Alteram Partem. ✅

(B) Caveat Emptor.

(C) Res Ipsa Loquitur.

(D) Volenti Non Fit Injuria.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Section 13(d) declares that a foreign judgment is not conclusive where the proceedings are opposed to natural justice.

Natural justice primarily consists of two rules:

  • No one shall be a judge in his own cause.
  • Every person must be given a fair opportunity of hearing.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B), (C), and (D) relate to entirely different branches of law.

Relevant Provision: Section 13(d), CPC.


Q.96. A foreign judgment obtained by fraud—

(A) Remains conclusive.

(B) Is void only after appeal.

(C) Is not conclusive under Section 13 CPC. ✅

(D) Automatically becomes executable in India.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Fraud vitiates every judicial proceeding. Accordingly, clause (e) of Section 13 provides that a foreign judgment obtained by fraud shall not be regarded as conclusive in India.

Fraud may relate either to jurisdictional facts or to the merits of the dispute.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Fraud destroys conclusiveness.

(B) Appeal is unnecessary for invoking Section 13(e).

(D) Fraudulent judgments are not enforceable.

Relevant Provision: Section 13(e), CPC.

Leading Principle:

"Fraud vitiates all judicial acts."


Q.97. Under Section 13(f) CPC, a foreign judgment shall not be conclusive if—

(A) It sustains a claim founded on a breach of any law in force in India. ✅

(B) It grants damages.

(C) It is written in a foreign language.

(D) It was delivered outside India.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Indian Courts will not recognise or enforce a foreign judgment which gives effect to a transaction prohibited by Indian law.

For example, a judgment enforcing a contract that is void under Indian law may not receive recognition.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B), (C), and (D) have no relevance under Section 13.

Relevant Provision: Section 13(f), CPC.


Q.98. Section 14 CPC creates a presumption that—

(A) Every foreign judgment has been pronounced by a Court of competent jurisdiction unless the contrary appears on record. ✅

(B) Every foreign judgment is obtained by fraud.

(C) Every foreign judgment is automatically executable.

(D) Every foreign Court follows Indian procedural law.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Section 14 raises a rebuttable presumption regarding the competence of the foreign Court.

The burden lies upon the party challenging the judgment to establish want of jurisdiction.

The presumption is not conclusive and may be displaced by evidence.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B), (C), and (D) have no statutory basis.

Relevant Provision: Section 14, CPC.


Q.99. The presumption under Section 14 CPC is—

(A) Conclusive.

(B) Irrebuttable.

(C) Rebuttable. ✅

(D) Applicable only to criminal judgments.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Section 14 merely raises a rebuttable presumption regarding the competence of the foreign Court.

If evidence establishes lack of jurisdiction, the presumption disappears.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) The presumption is not conclusive.

(B) Evidence may rebut it.

(D) Section 14 applies to foreign judgments in civil matters.

Relevant Provision: Section 14, CPC.


Q.100. Consider the following statements regarding Sections 13 and 14 CPC:

  1. A foreign judgment is generally conclusive between the parties.
  2. Fraud is one of the statutory exceptions under Section 13.
  3. Proceedings opposed to natural justice render a foreign judgment inconclusive.
  4. Section 14 raises a rebuttable presumption regarding the competence of the foreign Court.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2, 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✅

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

All four statements correctly reflect the provisions of Sections 13 and 14 CPC.

Section 13 adopts the rule that foreign judgments are ordinarily conclusive, subject to six well-defined exceptions. Among these are judgments obtained by fraud and those delivered in proceedings contrary to natural justice.

Section 14 complements Section 13 by creating a rebuttable presumption that the foreign Court was competent to pronounce the judgment, unless the contrary is proved.

Together, these provisions strike a balance between international comity and the protection of justice under Indian law.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Each of the statements is legally correct; therefore, any option omitting one or more statements is incorrect.

Relevant Provisions: Sections 13 & 14, CPC.

Leading Cases:

  • International Woollen Mills v. Standard Wool (UK) Ltd., (2001) 5 SCC 265.
  • Y. Narasimha Rao v. Y. Venkata Lakshmi, (1991) 3 SCC 451.
  • Satya v. Teja Singh, (1975) 1 SCC 120.

Judiciary Exam Tip:

The six exceptions under Section 13 CPC are among the most frequently tested areas in Judicial Services Preliminary Examinations. Memorise them in sequence:

  1. Lack of competent jurisdiction.
  2. Not on merits.
  3. Incorrect view of International Law or refusal to apply Indian law.
  4. Proceedings opposed to natural justice.
  5. Judgment obtained by fraud.
  6. Judgment sustaining a claim founded on a breach of Indian law.

These six clauses should be remembered verbatim, as they are regularly tested in Haryana, Punjab, Delhi, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and other State Judicial Service examinations.


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